NEET UG 20218

 1. The experimental proof for semiconservative replication of DNA was first shown in a

1. Fungus

 2. Bacterium

 3. Plant

 4. Virus 

2. Select the correct statement: 

1. Franklin Stahl coined the term "linkage". 

2. Punnett square was developed by a British scientist.

 3. Spliceosomes take part in translation. 

4. Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.

 3. Offsets are produced by 

1. Meiotic divisions

 2. Mitotic divisions

 3. Parthenocarpy 

4. Parthenogenesis

 4. Which of the following pairs in wrongly matched? 

1. Starch synthesis in pea: Multiple alleles

 2. ABO blood grouping: Co-dominance 

3. XO type sex determination: Grasshopper

 4. T.H Morgan: Linkage

 5. Which of the following flowers only once in its life-time? 

1. Bamboo species

 2. Jackfruit

 3. Mango 

4. Papaya

 6. Select the correct match: 1. Alec Jeffreys – Streptococcus pneumoniae 2. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase – TMV 3. Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Pisum sativum 4. Francois Jacob and Jacques Monod – Lac operon 7. Which of the following has proved helpful in preserving pollens as fossils? 1. Pollenkit 2. Cellulosic intine 3. Oil content 4. Sporopollenin 8. Stomatal movement is not affected by 1. Temperature 2. Light 3. O2 concentration 4. CO2 concentration 9. The stage during which separation of the paired homologous chromosomes begins is 1. Pachytene 2. Diplotene 3. Diakinesis 4. Zygotene 10. The two functional groups characteristic of sugars are 1. Hydroxyl and methyl 2. Carbonyl and methyl 3. Carbonyl and phosphate 4. Carbonyl and hydroxyl 11. Which of the following is not a product of light reaction of photosynthesis? 1. ATP 2. NADH 3. NADPH 4. Oxygen 12. Stomata in grass leaf are 1. Dumb-bell shaped 2. Kidney shaped 3. Rectangular 4. Barrel shaped 13. Which among the following is not a prokaryote? 1. Saccharomyces 2. Mycobacterium 3. Nostoc 4. Oscillatoria 14. Which of the following is true for nucleolus? 1. Larger nucleoli are present in dividing cells. 2. It is a membrane-bound structure. 3. It takes part in spindle formation. 4. It is a site for active ribosomal RNA synthesis. NEET 2018 Paper Page: 1 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 15. The Golgi complex participates in 1. Fatty acid breakdown 2. Formation of secretory vesicles 3. Respiration in bacteria 4. Activation of amino acid 16. In stratosphere, which of the following element acts as a catalyst in degradation of ozone a release of molecular oxygen? 1. Carbon 2. Cl 3. Fe 4. Oxygen 17. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant? 18. Niche is 1. All the biological factors in the organism environment 2. The physical space where an organism live 3. The range of temperature that the organism needs to live 4. The functional role played by the organism where it lives 19. Natality refers to 1. Death rate 2. Birth rate 3. Number of individuals leaving the habitat 4. Number of individuals entering the habitat 20. What type of ecological pyramid would obtained with the following data? Secondary consumer: 120 g Primary consumer: 60 g Primary producer: 10 g 1. Inverted pyramid of biomass 2. Pyramid of energy 3. Upright pyramid of numbers 4. Upright pyramid of biomass 21. World Ozone Day is celebrated on 1. 5th June 2. 21st April 3. 16th September 4. 22nd April 22. Which of the following is commonly used as a vector for introducing a DNA fragment in human Lymphocytes? 1. Retrovirus 2. Ti plasmid 3. λ phage 4. pBR 322 23. In India, the organization responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified Organisms for public use is 1. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) 2. Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) 3. Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM) 4. Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) 24. A 'new variety of rice was patented by a foreign company though such varieties have been present in India for a long time. This is related to 1. Co-667 2. Sharbati Sonora 3. Lerma Rojo 4. Basmati 25. Select the correct Match: 1. Ribozyme - Nucleic acid 2. F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross 3. T.H. Morgan - Transduction 4. G. Mendel - Transformation 26. Use of bioresources by multinational companies and organizations without authorization from the Concerned country and its people is called 1. Bio-infringement 2. Biopiracy 3. Biodegradation 4. Bioexploitation NEET 2018 Paper 1. CO 2. CO2 3. SO2 4. O3 Page: 2 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 27. The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is 1. Extension, Denaturation, Annealing 2. Annealing, Extension, Denaturation 3. Denaturation, Extension, Annealing 4. Denaturation, Annealing, Extension 28. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem are produced by 1. Apical meristems 2. Vascular cambium 3. Phellogen 4. Axillary meristems 29. Pneumatophores occur in 1. Halophytes 2. Free-floating hydrophytes 3. Carnivorous plants 4. Submerged hydrophytes 30. Sweet potato is a modified 1. Stem 2. Adventitious root 3. Tap root 4. Rhizome 31. Which of the following statement is correct? 1. Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in gymnosperms 2. Selaginella is heterosporous, while Salvinia is homosporous 3. Horsetails are gymnosperms 4. Stems are usually unbranched in both Cycas and Cedrus 32. Select the wrong statement: 1. Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae 2. Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes 3. Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in Sporozoans 4. Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all kingdoms except monera 33. Casparian strips occur in 1. Epidermis 2. Pericycle 3. Cortex 4. Endodermis 34. Plants having little or no secondary growth are 1. Grasses 2. Deciduous angiosperms 3. Conifers 4. Cycads 35. Which one is wrongly matched? 1. Uniflagellate gametes - Polysiphonia 2. Biflagellate zoospores - Brown algae 3. Gemma cups - Marchantia 4. Unicellular organism - Chlorella 36. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given belowColumn I Column II a. Herbarium i. It is a place having a collection of preserved plants and animals. b. Key ii. A list that enumerates methodically all the species found in an area with brief description aiding identification. c. Museum iii. Is a place where dried and pressed plant specimens mounted on sheets is kept. d. Catalogue iv. A booklet containing a list of characters and their alternates which are helpful in identification of various taxa. 1. a-I b-iv c-iii d-ii 2. a-iii b-ii c-I d-iv 3. a-ii b-iv c-iii d-i 4. a-iii b-iv c-i d-ii NEET 2018 Paper Page: 3 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 37. Winged pollen grains are present in 1 Mustard 2. Cycas 3. Mango 4. Pinus 38. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in 1. Neurospora 2. Alternaria 3. Agaricus 4. Saccharomyces 39. What is the role of NAD + in cellular respiration? 1. It functions as enzymes 2. It functions as an electron carrier 3. It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis 4. It is the final electron acceptor for anaerobic respiration 40. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis by 1. Green sulphur bacteria 2. Nostoc 3. Cycas 4. Chara 41. Pollen grains can be stored for several years in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of 1. –120 °C 2. –80 °C 3. –196 °C 4. –160 °C 42. In which of the following forms is iron absorbed by plants? 1. Ferric 2. Ferrous 3. Free element 4. Both ferric and ferrous 43. Double fertilization is 1. Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen tube with two different eggs 2. Fusion of one male gamete with two polar nuclei 3. Fusion of two male gametes with one egg 4. Syngamy and triple fusion 44. Which of the following elements is responsible for maintaining turgor in cells ? 1. Magnesium 2. Sodium 3. Potassium 4. Calcium 45. Which one of the following plants shows a very close relationship with a species of moth, where none of the two can complete its life cycle without the other? 1. Hydrilla 2. Yucca 3. Banana 4. Viola 46. Hormones secreted by the placenta to maintain pregnancy are 1. hCG, hPL, progesterone, prolactin 2. hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin 3. hCG, hPL, progesterone, estrogens 4. hCG, progesterone, estrogens, glucocorticoids 47. The contraceptive 'SAHELI' 1. blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing getting implanted. 2. increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females. 3. is an lUD 4. is a post-coital contraceptive. 48. The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is 1. In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed. 2. In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed. 3. In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from Sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed. 4. In spermiogenesis, spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from Sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tubules. NEET 2018 Paper Page: 4 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 49. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived from 1. ectoderm and mesoderm 2. endoderm and mesoderm 3. mesoderm and trophoblast 4. ectoderm and endoderm 50. In a growing population of a country 1. pre-reproductive individuals are more than thereproductive individuals. 2. reproductive individuals are less than the postreproductive individuals. 3. reproductive and pre-reproductive individualsare equal in number. 4. pre-reproductive individuals are less than thereproductive individuals. 51. All of the following are included in 'Ex-situconservation' except 1. Wildlife safari parks 2. Sacred groves 3. Botanical Gardens 4. Seed banks 52. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain the drug Smack? 1. Flowers 2. Latex 3. Roots 4. Leaves 53. Match the items given in Column I with those inColumn II and select the correct option givenbelow: Column I Column II a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient enrichment d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal 1. a-ii b-i c-iii d-iv 2. a-i b-iii c-iv d-ii 3. a-iii b-iv c-i d-ii 4. a-i b-ii c-iv d-iii 54. Which one of the following population interactions is widely used in medical science for the production of antibiotics ? 1. Commensalism 2. Mutualism 3. Parasitism 4. Amensalism 55. Which of the following events does not occur inrough endoplasmic reticulum ? 1. Protein folding 2. Protein glycosylation 3. Cleavage of signal peptide 4. Phospholipid synthesis 56. Which of these statements is incorrect? 1. Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in mitochondrial matrix. 2. Glycolysis occurs in cytosol. 3. Glycolysis operates as long as it is supplied with NAD that can pick up hydrogen atoms. 4. Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in outermitochondrial membrane. 57. Many ribosomes may associate with a single mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are termed as 1. Polysome 2. Polyhedral bodies 3. Plastidome 4. Nucleosome 58. Select the incorrect match: 1. Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents chromosomes 2. Allosomes – Sex chromosomes 3. Submetacentric – L-shaped chromosomes 4. Polytene – Oocytes of amphibians chromosomes 59. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of 1. Proteins and lipids 2. DNA and RNA 3. Nucleic acids and SER 4. Free ribosomes and RER NEET 2018 Paper Page: 5 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 60. Which of the following terms describe human dentition? 1. Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont 2. Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont 3. Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont 4. Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont 61. Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I Column II a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of uric acid in joints b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallized salts within the kidney c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in glomeruli d. Glomerulonephritis iv. Presence of glucose in nephritis urine 1. a-iii b-ii c-iv d-i 2. a-i b-ii c-iii d-iv 3. a-ii b-iii c-i d-iv 4. a-iv b-i c-ii d-iii 62. Match the items given in Column I with those Column II and select the correct option givenbelow: Column I Column II (Function) (Part of Excretory System) a. Ultra filtration i. Henle's loop b. Concentration of urine ii. Ureter c. Transport of urine iii. Urinary bladder d. Storage of urine iv. Malpighi an corpuscle v. Proximal convoluted tubule 1. a-iv b-v c-ii d-iii 2. a-iv b-i c-ii d-iii 3. a-v b-iv c-i d-ii 4. a-v b-iv c-i d-iii 63. The similarity of bone structure in the forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example of 1. evolution 2. Analogy 3. Convergent evolution 4. Adaptive radiation 64. Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease? 1. Psoriasis 2. Rheumatoid arthritis 3. Alzheimer's disease 4. Vitiligo 65. Among the following sets of examples for divergent evolution, select the incorrect option: 1. Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah 2. Heart of bat, man and cheetah 3. Brain of bat, man and cheetah 4. Eye of octopus, bat and man 66. Which of the following characteristics represent 'Inheritance of blood groups' in humans? a. Dominance b. Co-dominance c. Multiple dominance d. Incomplete dominance e. Polygenic inheritance 1. b, c and e 2. a, b and c 3. b, d and e 4. a, c and e 67. In which disease does mosquito transmitted pathogen cause chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels? 1. Elephantiasis 2. Ascariasis 3. Ringworm disease 4. Amoebiasis 68. Conversion of milk to curd improves its nutritionalvalue by increasing the amount of 1. Vitamin D 2. Vitamin A 3. Vitamin B12 4. Vitamin E 69. Which of the following is an amino acid derived hormone? 1. Epinephrine 2. Ecdysone 3. Estradiol 4. Estriol NEET 2018 Paper Page: 6 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 70. Which of the following structures or regions is incorrectly paired with its function ? 1. Medulla oblongata: controls respiration and cardiovascular reflexes. 2. Limbic system: consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of brain; controls movement. 3. Hypothalamus: production of releasing hormones and regulation of temperature, hunger and Thirst. 4. Corpus callosum: band of fibers connecting left and right cerebral hemispheres. 71. Which of the following hormones can play a significant role in osteoporosis? 1. Aldosterone and Prolactin 2. Progesterone and Aldosterone 3. Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone 4. Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin 72. The transparent lens in the human eye is held in its place by 1. ligaments attached to the ciliary body 2. ligaments attached to the iris 3. smooth muscles attached to the iris 4. smooth muscles attached to the ciliary body 73. Which of the following animals does not undergo metamorphosis? 1. Earthworm 2. Tunicate 3. Moth 4. Starfish 74. Identify the vertebrate group of animals characterized by crop and gizzard in its digestive system. 1. Amphibia 2. Reptilia 3. Aves 4. Osteichthyes 75. Which of the following organisms are known as chief producers in the oceans ? 1. Dinoflagellates 2. Diatoms 3. Cyanobacteria 4. Euglenoids 76. Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm? 1. Macropus 2. Chelone 3. Camelus 4. Psittacula 77. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in 1. using flagella for locomotion 2. having a contractile vacuole for removing excesswater 3. using pseudopodia for capturing prey 4. having two types of nuclei 78. Which of the following features is used to identifya male cockroach from a female cockroach? 1. Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th abdominal segment 2. Presence of caudal styles 3. Forewings with darker tegmina 4. Presence of anal cerci 79. Which of the following options correctly represents the lung conditions in asthma and emphysema, respectively? 1. Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased respiratory surface 2. Increased number of bronchioles; Increased respiratory surface 3. Increased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles 4. Decreased respiratory surface; Inflammation of bronchioles 80. Match the items given in Column I with those inColumn II and select the correct option givenbelow: Column I Column II a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium and left ventricle b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right ventricle and pulmonary artery c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right atrium and right ventricle 1. a-iii b-i c-ii 2. a-i b-iii c-ii 3. a-i b-ii c-iii 4. a-ii b-i c-iii NEET 2018 Paper Page: 7 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 81. Match the items given Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below: Column I Column II a. Tidal volume i. 2500-3000 mL b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100-1200 mL volume c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500-550 mL volume d. Residual volume iv. 1000-1100 mL 1. a-iii b-ii c-i d-iv 2. a-iii b-i c-iv d-ii 3. a-i b-iv c-ii d-iii 4. a-iv b-iii c-ii d-i 82. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding sequence of the transcribed mRNA? 1. AGGUAUCGCAU 2. UGGTUTCGCAT 3. ACCUAUGCGAU 4. UCCAUAGCGUA 83. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism of evolution is:- 1. Multiple step mutations 2. Saltation 3. Phenotypic variations 4. Minor mutations 84. Question 174 Match the items given in Column I with those in Column II and select the correct option given below:- Column I Column II a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of endometrial lining b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase 1. a-iii b-ii c-i 2. a-i b-iii c-ii 3. a-ii b-iii c-i 4. a-iii b-i c-ii 85. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be inherited by:- 1. Only daughters 2. Only sons 3. Only grandchildren 4. Both sons and daughters 86. All of the following are part of an operon except:- 1. an operator 2. structural genes 3. an enhancer 4. a promoter 87. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly help in erythropoiesis? 1. Chief cells 2. Mucous cells 3. Goblet cells 4. Parietal cells 88. Match the items given in Column I with those in column II and select the correct option given below:- Column I Column II a. Fibrinogen i. Osmotic balance b. Globulin ii. Blood clotting c. Albumin iii. Defence mechanism 1. a-iii b-ii c-i 2. a-i b-ii c-iii 3. a-i b-iii c-ii 4. a-ii b-iii c-i 89. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle contraction because it:- 1. binds to troponin to remove the masking of active sites on actin for myosin. 2. activates the myosin ATPase by binding to it. 3. detaches the myosin head from the actinfilament. 4. prevents the formation of bonds between the myosin cross bridges and the actin filament. 90. Which of the following is an occupational respiratory disorder? 1. Anthracis 2. Silicosis 3. Botulism 4. Emphysema NEET 2018 Paper Page: 8 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 91. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic acid is treated with conc. The evolved gaseous mixture is passed through KOH pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product at STP will be 1. 1.4 2. 3.0 3. 2.8 4. 4.4 92. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium also gives m-nitroaniline because 1. In spite of substituents nitro group always goes to only m-position 2. In electrophilic substitution reactions amino group is meta directive 3. In absence of substituents nitro group always goes to only m-position 4. In acidic (strong) medium aniline is present as anilinium ion 93. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in nature? 1. MgO 2. BeO 3. BaO 3. CaO 94. The difference between amylose and amylopectin is 1. Amylopectin have - linkage and - linkage 2. Amylose have - linkage and - linkage 3. Amylopectin have - linkage and - linkage 4. Amylose is made up of glucose and galactose 95. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, which of the following statements is incorrect? 1. They contain covalent bonds between various linear polymer chains, 2. they are formed from bi and tri functional monomers. 3. Examples are bakelite and melamine 4. They contain strong covalent bonds in their polymer chains 96. In the reaction the electrophile involved is 1. dichloromethyl cation 2. formyl cation 3. dichloromethyl anion 4. dichlorocarbene (:CCl2 ) 97. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular mass. It is due to their 1. formation of intramolecular H-bonding 2. formation of carboxylate ion 3. more extensive association of carboxylic acid via van der waals force of attraction 4. formation of intermolecular H-bonding NEET 2018 Paper H2 SO4 1 → 4α 1 → 6α 1 → 4α 1 → 6β 1 → 4α 1 → 6β ( ⊕ C HCl2) ( ⊕ C HO) ( ⊕ C HCl2) Page: 9 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 98. Compound A, is found to react with NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic smell. A and Y are respectively 1. 2. 3. 4. 99. The correct difference between first- and second-order reaction is that 1. the rate of a first-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentration; the rate of a secondorder reaction does depend on reactant concentrations. 2. the half-life of a first-order reaction does not depend on [A]0; the half-life of a second-order reaction does depend on [A]0 3. a first-order reaction can be catalyzed; a second-order reaction cannot be catalyzed. 4. the rate of a first-order reaction does depend on reactant concentrations; the rate of a second-order reaction does not depend on reactant concentrations 100. Among the order of ionic character is 1. 2. 3. 4. 101. Consider the change in oxidation state of Bromine corresponding to different emf values as shown in the diagram below: Then the species undergoing disproportionation is:- 1. 2. 3. 4. HBrO 102. In which case is the number of molecules of water maximum? 1. 18 mL of water 2. 0.18 g of water 3. 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and 273 K 4. 10 –3 mol of water 103. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form an ionic compound. If the ground state electronic configuration of (X) is the simplest formula for this compound is 1. 2. 3. 4. 104. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. Above 900 °C, it transforms to fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at room temperature to that at 900 °C (assuming molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains constant with temperature) is 1. 2. 3. 4. NEET 2018 Paper C8H10O CaH2, BeH2, BaH2 BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2 CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2 BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2 BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2 1s 22s 22p 3 Mg2 X3 MgX2 Mg2 X Mg3 X2 √3 √2 4√3 3√2 3√3 4√2 1 2 Page: 10 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 105. Which one is the wrong statement? 1. Total orbital angular momentum of an electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero. 2. An orbital is designated by three quantum numbers while an electron in an atom is designated by four quantum numbers. 3. The electronic configuration of N atom is 4. The value of m for dz 2 is zero. 106. Consider the following species: and CN Which one of these will have the highest bond order? 1. NO 2. CN – 3. CN + 4. CN 107. Which of the following statements is not true for halogens? 1. All form monobasic oxyacids. 2. All are oxidizing agents. 3. All but fluorine show positive oxidation states. 4. Chlorine has the highest electron-gain enthalpy. 108. Which one of the following elements is unable to form ion? 1. Ga 2. Al 3. B 4. In 109. In the structure of ClF3 , the number of lone pairs of electrons on central atom 'Cl' is 1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4 110. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the following metals can be used to reduce alumina? 1. Fe. 2. Zn 3. Mg 4. Cu 111. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 elements is 1. B < Al < In < Ga < Tl 2. B < Al < Ga < In < Tl 3. B < Ga < Al < Tl < In 4. B < Ga < Al < In < Tl 112. The correct order of N-compounds in its decreasing order of oxidation states is 1. 2. 3. 4. 113. On which of the following properties does coagulating power of an ion depend? 1. The magnitude of the charge on the alone 2. Size of the ion alone 3. Both magnitude and sign of the charge the ion 4. The sign of the charge on the ion alone NEET 2018 Paper CN + , CN − , NO MF 3− 6 HNO3, NO, N2, NH4 Cl HNO3, NO, NH4 Cl, N2 HNO3 , NH4 Cl, NO, N2 NH4 Cl, N2, NO, HNO3 Page: 11 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 114. Following solutions were prepared by mixing different volumes of NaOH and HCl of different concentrations : 1) 2) 3) 4) pH of which one of them will be equal to 1? 1. 2 2. 1 3. 4 4. 3 115. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is g/ litre at 298 K. The value of the solubility product (Ksp ) will be (Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 gmol –1 ) 1. 2. 3. 4. 116. Given van der Waals constant for NH3 , H2 and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and 3.59, which one of the following gases is most easily liquefied? 117. The compound A on treatment with Na gives B, and with PCl5 gives C. B and C react together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are in the order 1. 2. 3. 4. 118. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon atoms. (A) is 1. 2. 3. 4. 119. The compound undergoes the following reactions : The product 'C' is 1. m–bromotoluene 2. o–bromotoluene 3. 3–bromo–2,4,6–trichlorotoluene 4. p–bromotoluene 120. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both due to natural and human activity? 121. For the redox reaction the correct coefficients of the reactants for the balanced equation are and 1. 16, 5, 2 2. 2, 5, 16 3. 2, 16, 5 4. 5, 16, 2 NEET 2018 Paper 2. 42 x 10 −3 1. NH3 2. H2 3. O2 4. CO2 C2H5 OH, C2H6, C2H5 CI C2H5 OH, C2H5 CI, C2H5 ONa C2H5 Cl, C2H6 , C2H5 OH C2H5 OH, C2H5 ONa , C2H5 Cl CH ≡ CH CH2 = CH2 CH3 − CH3 CH4 C7H8 C7H8 3 Cl2 / hv −−−−→ A Br2 / Fe −−−→ B Zn / HCl −−→ 1. N2O5 2. NO2 3. N2O 4. NO MnO − 4 + C2O 2− 4 + H − → Mn 2+ + CO2 + H2O MnO − 4 , C2O 2− 4 H + Page: 12 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 122. Which one of the following conditions will favour maximum formation of the product in the reaction, 1. Low temperature and high pressure 2. Low temperature and low pressure 3. High temperature and high pressure 4. High temperature and low pressure 123. The correction factor 'a' to the ideal gas equation corresponds to 1. density of the gas molecules 2. volume of the gas molecules 3. electric field present between the gas molecules 4. forces of attraction between the gas molecules 124. When initial concentration of the reactant is doubled, the half-life period of a zero order reaction 1. is halved 2. is doubled 3. is tripled 4. remains unchanged 125. The bond dissociation energies of and XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. ∆H for the formation of XY is –200 kJ mol –1 . The bond dissociation energy of X2 will be 1. 200 kJ mol –1 2. 100 kJ mol –1 2. 800 kJ mol –1 4. 400 kJ mol –1 126. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the following sequence of reaction : 1. 2. 3. 4. 127. Which of the following compounds can form a zwitterion? 1. Aniline 2. Acetanilide 3. Benzoic acid 4. Glycine 128. The type of isomerism shown by the complex is 1. Geometrical isomerism 2. Coordination isomerism 3. Ionization isomerism 4. Linkage isomerism 129. Which one of the following ions exhibits d–d transition and paramagnetism as well? 1. 2. 3. 4. NEET 2018 Paper [CoCl2 (en)2 ] CrO 2− 4 Cr2 O 2− 7 MnO − 4 MnO 2− 4 Page: 13 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 130. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the complex [Ni(CO)4 ] are 1. square planar geometry and diamagnetic 2. tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic 3. square planar geometry and paramagnetic 4. tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic 131. Iron carbonyl, is 1. tetranuclear 2. mononuclear 3. trinuclear 4. dinuclear 132. Match the metal ions given in Column I with the spin magnetic moments of the ions given in Column II and assign the correct code : Column I Column II a. i. b. ii. c. iii. d. iv. v. 1. a-iv b-v c-ii d-i 2. a-i b-ii c-iii d-iv 3. a-iv b-i c-ii d-iii 4. a-iii b-v c-i d-ii 133. Which of the following is correct with respect to –I effect of the substituents ? (R = alkyl) 1. 2. 3. 4. 134. Which of the following carbocations is expected to be most stable? 1. 2. 3. 4. 135. Which of the following molecules represents the order of hybridisation from left to right atoms? 1. 2. 3. 4. NEET 2018 Paper Fe (CO)5 − NH2 < −OR < −F − NR2 < −OR < −F − NH2 > −OR > −F − NR2 > −OR > −F sp 2 ,sp 2 ,sp,sp HC ≡ C − C ≡ H CH2 = CH − C ≡ CH CH2 = CH − CH = CH2 CH2 − CH = CH − CH3 Page: 14 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 136. An EM wave is propagating in a medium with a velocity . The instantaneous oscillating electric field of this EM wave is along the +y axis. Then the direction of the oscillating magnetic field of the EM wave will be along: 1. -z-direction 2. +z direction 3. -y-direction 4. +y direction 137. The refractive index of the material of a prism is and the angle of the prism is 30°. One of the two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards, by a silver coating. A beam of monochromatic light entering the prism from the other face will retrace its path (after reflection from the silvered surface) if the angle of incidence on the prism is:- 138. The magnetic potential energy stored in a certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of inductance : 1. 0.138 H 2. 138.88 H 3. 1.389 H 4. 13.89 H 139. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. If the object is displaced through a distance of 20 cm towards the mirror, the displacement of the image will be:- 1. 30 cm away from the mirror 2. 36 cm away from the mirror 3. 30 cm towards the mirror 4. 36 cm towards the mirror 140. In the combination of the following gates, the output Y can be written in terms of inputs A and B as :- 1. 2. 3. 4. 141. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0, and VCE = 0. The values of IB, IC and are given by: 1. 2. 3. 4. 142. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature due to heating: 1. Affects only reverse resistance 2. Affects only forward bias 3. Does not affect the resistance of the p-n junction 4. Affects the overall V-I characteristics of p-n junction NEET 2018 Paper → V = V ˆi √2 1. 60° 2. 45° 3. 30° 4. Zero ¯A¯ ¯ . B + A. B β IB = 40 μA, Ic = 10 mA, β = 250 IB = 25 μA, Ic = 5 mA, β = 200 IB = 20 μA, Ic = 5 mA, β = 250 IB = 40 μA, Ic = 5 mA, β = 125 Page: 15 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 143. A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced due to the viscous force. The rate of production of heat when the sphere attains its terminal velocity is proportional to: 1. 2. 3. 4. 144. A sample of 0.1 g of water at and normal pressure (1.013 × 10 5 Nm –2 ) requires 54 cal of heat energy to convert it into steam at . If the volume of the steam produced is 167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the sample is: 1. 104.3 J 2. 208.7 J 3. 42.2 J 4. 84.5 J 145. Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. The first wire has cross-sectional area A and the second wire has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the first wire is increased by on applying a force F, how much force is needed to stretch the second wire by the same amount? 1. 9F 2. 6F 3. 4F 4. F 146. The power radiated by a black body is P and it radiates maximum energy at wavelength . If the temperature of the black body is now changed so that it radiates maximum energy at the wavelength . The power radiated by it becomes nP. The value of n is: 1. 2. 3. 4. 147. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each, are connected in series to a battery of emf 'E' and internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in parallel to the same battery. Then the current drawn becomes 10I. The value of 'n' is:- 1. 10 2. 11 3. 20 4. 9 NEET 2018 Paper r 3 r 2 r 5 r 4 100 0 C 100 0 C Δl λ0 λ0 3 4 3 4 4 3 256 81 81 256 Page: 16 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 148. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' each) which are connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the current I is measured. Which of the graphs shows the correct relationship between I and n? 1. 2. 3. 4. 149. A carbon resistor (47 ± 4.7) kΩ is to be marked with rings of different colours for its identification. The colour code sequence will be :- 1. Violet - Yellow - Orange - Silver 2. Yellow - Violet - Orange - Silver 3. Yellow - Green - Violet - Gold 4. Green - Orange - Violet - Gold 150. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ? 1. Rolling friction is smaller than sliding friction. 2. Limiting value of static friction is directly proportional to normal reaction. 3. Frictional force opposes the relative motion . 4. Coefficient of sliding friction has dimensions of length. 151. A moving block having mass m collides with another stationary block having a mass of 4m. The lighter block comes to rest after the collision. When the initial velocity of the lighter block is v, then the value of the coefficient of restitution (e) will be:- 1. 0.5 2. 0.25 3. 0.8 4. 0.4 152. A body initially at rest and sliding along a frictionless track from a height h (as shown in the figure) just completes a vertical circle of diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to :- 1. 2. D 3. 4. 153. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin circular disk) and C = (a circular ring), each have the same mass M and radius R. They all spin with the same angular speed about their own symmetry axes. The amounts of work (W) required to bring them to rest, would satisfy the relation:- NEET 2018 Paper D 3 2 D 7 4 D 5 4 1. WC > WB > WA 2. WA > WB > WC 3. WB > WA > WC 4. WA > WC > WB Page: 17 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 154. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in a glass tube. The length of the air column in this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston. At room temperature of 27°C two successive resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm column length. If the frequency of the tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in air at 27°C is: 1. 330 m/s 2. 339 m/s 3. 350 m/s 4. 300 m/s 155. An electron falls from rest through a vertical distance h in a uniform and vertically upward-directed electric field E. The direction of the electric field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest through the same vertical distance h. The fall time of the electron in comparison to the fall time of the proton is:- 1. smaller 2. 5 times greater 3. 10 times greater 4. equal 156. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a sufficiently high building and is moving freely to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum is 20 m/s 2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean position. The time period of oscillation is: 1. 2 s 2. s 3. 2 s 4. 1 s 157. The electrostatic force between the metal plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor C having a charge Q and area A, is 1. Independent of the distance between the plates 2. linearly proportional to the distance between the plates 3. proportional to the sqaure root of the distance between the plates 4. inversely proportional to the distance between the plates 158. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity enters in an electric field (Eo = constant >0) at t = 0. If , is its de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-Broglie wavelength at time t is:- 1. 2. 3. 4. 159. For radioactive material, the half-life is 10 minutes. If initially, there are 600 number of nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the disintegration of 450 nuclei is : 1. 20 2. 10 3. 30 4. 15 160. When light of frequency 2 o (where o is threshold frequency), is incident on a metal plate, the maximum velocity of electrons emitted is . When the frequency of the incident radiation is increased to 5 o , the maximum velocity of electrons emitted from the same plate is . The ratio of to is 1. 1: 2 2. 1: 4 3. 4: 1 4. 2: 1 161. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is: 1. 1 : 1 2. 1 : -1 3. 2 : -1 4. 1 : -2 NEET 2018 Paper π π →v = v0 ˆ i(v0 > 0) → E = −E0 ˆ i λ0 λ0 ( 1+ t) eE0 mv0 λ0(1 + t) eE0 mv0 λ0t λ0 ν ν v1 ν v2 v1 v2 Page: 18 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 162. The moment of the force, at point (2,0,-3) about the point (2,-2,-2) is given by:- 1. 2. 3. 4. 163. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth inclined wedge ABC of inclination θ as shown in the figure. The wedge is given an acceleration 'a' towards the right. The relation between a and for the block to remain stationary on the wedge is:- 1. 2. 3. 4. 164. A toy car with charge q moves on a frictionless horizontal plane surface under the influence of a uniform electric field . Due to the force q , its velocity increases from 0 to 6 m/s in one-second duration. At that instant, the direction of the field is reversed. The car continues to move for two more seconds under the influence of this field. The average velocity and the average speed of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are respectively:- 1. 2 m/s, 4 m/s 2. 1 m/s, 3 m/s 3. 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s 4. 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s 165. A student measured the diameter of a small steel ball using a screw gauge of least count 0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and zero of circular scale division coincides with 25 divisions above the reference level. If screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm, the correct diameter of the ball is: 1. 0.521 cm 2. 0.525 cm 3. 0.053 cm 4. 0.529 cm 166. Unpolarised light is incident from the air on a plane surface of a material of refractive index 'μ'. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is found that the reflected and refracted rays are perpendicular to each other. Which of the following options is correct for this situation? 1. The reflected light is polarised with its electric vector parallel to the plane of incidence. 2. The reflected light is polarised with its electric vector perpendicular to the plane of incidence. 3. 4. 167. In Young's double-slit experiment, the separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the wavelength of the light used is 5896 Å and distance D between the screen and slits is 100 cm. It is found that the angular width of the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe angular width to 0.21° (with same and D) the separation between the slits needs to be changed to:- 1. 1.8 mm 2. 1.9 mm 3. 2.1 mm 3. 1.7 mm NEET 2018 Paper → F = 4 ˆ i + 5 ˆ j − 6 ˆk −8 ˆ i − 4 ˆ j − 7 ˆk −4 ˆ i − ˆ j − 8 ˆk −7 ˆ i − 8 ˆ j − 4 ˆk −7 ˆ i − 4 ˆ j − 8 ˆk θ a = g cos ecθ a = g sin θ a = g cos θ a = g tan θ → E → E i = sin −1 ( ) 1 μ i = tan −1 ( ) 1 μ λ λ Page: 19 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 168. An astronomical refracting telescope will have large angular magnification and high angular resolution when it has an objective lens of:- 1. small focal length and large diameter 2. large focal length and small diameter 3. large focal length and large diameter 4. small focal length and small diameter 169. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies with its temperature (T), as shown in the graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a change from state A to state B, is: 1. 2. 3. 4. 170. The fundamental frequency in an open organ pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ pipe is: 1. 13.2 cm 2. 8 cm 3. 12.5 cm 4. 16 cm 171. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working between the freezing point and boiling point of water is: 1. 26.8% 2. 20% 3. 6.25% 4. 12.5% 172. At what temperature will the RMS speed of oxygen molecules become just sufficient for escaping from the earth's atmosphere? (Given : Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 x 10 -26 kg, Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10 -23 J K -1 ): 1. 2. 3. 4. 173. A metallic rod of mass per unit length 0.5 kg m -1 is lying horizontally on a smooth inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to slide down by flowing a current through it when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is acting on it in the vertical direction. The current flowing in the rod to keep stationery is: 1. 7.14 A 2. 5.98 A 3. 14.76 A 4. 11.32 A 174. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 μF, and a resistor 50 are connected in series across a source of emf, V= 10sin314t. The power loss in the circuit is: 1. 0.79 W 2. 0.43 W 3. 2.74 W 4. 1.13 W 175. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically between the poles of an electromagnet. When the current in the electromagnet is switched on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the rod gains gravitational potential energy. The work required to do this comes from 1. the current source 2. the magnetic field 3. the lattice structure of the material of the rod 4. the induced electric field due to the changing magnetic field. NEET 2018 Paper 2 5 2 3 1 3 2 7 2. 508 × 10 4 K 8. 360 × 10 4 K 5. 016 × 10 4 K 1. 254 × 10 4 K Ω Page: 20 Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 176. The current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the galvanometer is: 1. 40 2. 25 3. 250 4. 500 177. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller and the universal gravitational constant were ten times larger in magnitude, which of the following is not correct? 1. Raindrops will fall faster. 2. walking on the ground would become more difficult. 3. Time period of a simple pendulum on the Earth would decrease. 4. 'g' on earth will not change. 178. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling motion, a body possesses translational kinetic energy (Kt ) as well as rotational kinetic energy (Kr ) simultaneously. The ratio Kt : (Kt + Kr ) for the sphere is: 1. 7:10 2. 5:7 3. 10:7 4. 2:5 179. The kinetic energies of a planet in an elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B and C are KA, KB and KC respectively. AC is the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC at the position of the Sun S as shown in the figure. Then: 180. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the sphere is increased keeping its mass the same. Which of the following physical quantities would remain constant for the sphere? 1. Angular velocity 2. moment of inertia 3. rotational kinetic energy 4. Angular momentum Fill OMR Sheet NEET 2018 Paper Ω Ω Ω Ω 1. KA < KB < KC 2. KA > KB > KC 3. KB < KA < KC 4. KB > KA > KC Page: 21 NEET 2018 Paper Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718 Page: 22